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Monday, May 27, 2013

A Question about Judas


I have often seen it noted that the descriptions of Judas in the NT are progressively more villainous over time. For example, in the Gospel of Mark (usually described as the first of the NT gospels) Judas is listed as one of the 12, and is said to have handed Jesus over to the high priests who promised to pay him money.  No indication of his motive is given.  But by the time we get to Luke we read that “Satan entered him” (Luke 22: 3) and in John he has become “a devil” (John 6: 70),” a thief” (John 12:6), and “the son of perdition” – the only disciple to be lost (John 17: 11 – 12). 

His fate is even worse in the hands of later Christian writers.

But one thing about Judas (in the canonical books, at least) remains constant:  the verb used for his action.  He “handed over” Jesus to the authorities.  This verb –paradidonai  in Greek – is less ominous, less villainous than “betray.”  But despite the increasingly harsh description of Judas’ character in the gospels, his action remained this relatively neutral verb “hand over.”

I wonder why?  

Surely the gospel writers were clever enough to think of other more caustic verbs, verbs with more of a barb than “handed over.”  But they didn't use any other verb.  Paradidonai it was and paradidonai it remained.

Curiously it is the same verb used by the apostle Paul (who never mentioned Judas by name) when he said that God handed Jesus over (Romans 8: 32) and that Jesus handed himself over (Galatians 2: 20).





1 comment:

  1. OK -- Interesting. I have always struggle with the "evil" of Judas, and the "caught up in the mealstrom that was to follow Christ's life being torn assunder

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